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Thread: :|~ Maths Problem (RESOLVED)

  1. #1

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    :|~ Maths Problem (RESOLVED)

    Bob writes down 6 consecutive positive integers and splits them up into two groups. For each group, he finds the sum and then finds the difference of these two new numbers. What is the smallest non-negative number he can get?

    i think the answer is 1, it may be 0

    But who can help me prove it?
    Last edited by da_silvy; Apr 16th, 2002 at 08:37 AM.

  2. #2
    Hyperactive Member Ambivalentiowa's Avatar
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    ANy 6 consecutive numbers when split into two groups,
    one group will be even and the other will be odd.

    Therefore, there will never be a difference of 0.
    -Show me on the doll where the music touched you.

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    thanks very much

    just what i wanted

  4. #4
    BigGlass
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    1. I believe in Ambivalentiowa
    2. Conjecture: The less integer for the problem is greater than 1
    3. The conjecture is false, we will prove by counter example

    Six consecutive number are x, x+1, x+2, x+3, x+4, x+5 or x+1, x+2, x+3, x+4, x+5, x+6. I’ll use the last for convenience.
    We can change the number 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 variables and split in two groups, so,
    x + a0 + x + a1 + x + a2 – (x + a3 + x + a4 + x + a5) where 0 < ai <= 6 and ai <> aj
    3x + (a0 + a1 + a2) – 3x – ( a3 + a4 + a5)
    (a0 + a1 + a2) – ( a3 + a4 + a5)
    now we have only 20 combinations (6!/(6-3)!3!) “Brute force” is feasible, then
    (6+5+4) - (3+2+1) = 9
    (6+5+3) - (4+2+1) = 7
    (6+5+2) - (4+3+1) = 5
    (6+5+1) - (4+3+2) = 3
    (6+4+3) - (5+2+1) = 5
    (6+4+2) - (5+3+1) = 3
    (6+4+1) - (5+3+2) = 1 (Bingo!)

  5. #5
    BigGlass
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    1. I believe in Ambivalentiowa
    2. Conjecture: The less integer for the problem is greater than 1
    3. The conjecture is false, we will prove by counter example

    Six consecutive number are x, x+1, x+2, x+3, x+4, x+5 or x+1, x+2, x+3, x+4, x+5, x+6. I’ll use the last for convenience.
    We can change the number 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 variables and split in two groups, so,
    x + a0 + x + a1 + x + a2 – (x + a3 + x + a4 + x + a5) where 0 < ai <= 6 and ai <> aj
    3x + (a0 + a1 + a2) – 3x – ( a3 + a4 + a5)
    (a0 + a1 + a2) – ( a3 + a4 + a5)
    now we have only 20 combinations (6!/(6-3)!3!) “Brute force” is feasible, then
    (6+5+4) - (3+2+1) = 9
    (6+5+3) - (4+2+1) = 7
    (6+5+2) - (4+3+1) = 5
    (6+5+1) - (4+3+2) = 3
    (6+4+3) - (5+2+1) = 5
    (6+4+2) - (5+3+1) = 3
    (6+4+1) - (5+3+2) = 1 (Bingo!)

  6. #6
    Hyperactive Member Ambivalentiowa's Avatar
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    Thanks for explaining it BigGlass, i forgot to put an example.
    -Show me on the doll where the music touched you.

  7. #7

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    Thanks for that

    I knew it was 1

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