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Thread: 2=1
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Feb 5th, 2001, 10:19 AM
#1
Thread Starter
Addicted Member
I'm not sure if you've seen this before but here is a really funky equation:
b+b=b
2b = b
2b=1b
2b/b = 1b/b
2=1
I know there's something wrong with that, but you figure it out!
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Feb 5th, 2001, 10:53 AM
#2
New Member
:-)
How can b+b=b ?
ie: 1 + 1 = 1
just not possible to begin with.
'b+b' could equal 'a' though.
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Feb 5th, 2001, 11:00 AM
#3
Hyperactive Member
Agreed . . . . . .
No way can b+b = b!!!!
b+b=2b (or not to be, but that's a different story . . .)
thus tken to the extreme
b=b . . . pointless and we should be shot for even answering such needless hyperbole . . .
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Feb 5th, 2001, 11:08 AM
#4
Registered User
heh..easy..
Hi
well...everybody knows that b+b<>b unless b=0
so lets take the only case where the first equoation is correct: b=0 :
b+b=b
2b=b
2b=1b
2=1 (Here you devided both sides by b, and b=0, you cannot devide by 0) !!!!
That's it.
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Feb 8th, 2001, 05:43 AM
#5
Addicted Member
You could try this:
let: a=b
multiply by a: a^2=ab
add(a^2-2ab):a^2 + (a^2-2ab) = ab+ (a^2-2ab)
simplify: 2(a^2 - ab) = a^2 - ab
divide by (a^2 -ab): 2(a^2 - ab))/(a^2 -ab) = (a^2 - ab)/(a^2 -ab)
Therefore: 2 = 1
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Feb 8th, 2001, 05:51 AM
#6
Hyperactive Member
Erm....
On the basis that a^2=2ab then a^2-2ab=0 . . . .
So why add this?
AND
a^2 + (a^2-2ab) = ab+ (a^2-2ab)
does not simplify to
2(a^2 - ab) = a^2 - ab
It simplifies to
a^2-ab=0!
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Feb 8th, 2001, 07:01 AM
#7
Addicted Member
ah! you spotted it :7)
1. I think I can add what I like - even 0
2. Perhaps 'simplify' was not the right word to use
3. The actual failure is at the division line. As you correctly pointed out (a^2 -ab)=0, so the division is not allowed.
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Feb 13th, 2001, 02:21 PM
#8
Hyperactive Member
Well...
Prove that 0.9999(recuring) = 1
Here goes:
let x = 0.9999(recuring)
then 10x = 9.9999(recuring)
then 10x-x = 9.9999(recuring) - x
then 9x = 9
then x = 1
Well....?
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Feb 14th, 2001, 03:21 AM
#9
Addicted Member
Yep, 0.9999(recur) = 1, I tried typing loads of 9's into Excel and it came out as 1.
:7)
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Feb 14th, 2001, 03:28 PM
#10
Monday Morning Lunatic
Re: Well...
Originally posted by marnitzg
Well....?
Since 0.9999 recurring is infinitely close to 1, then for all reasonable situations it is 1
I refuse to tie my hands behind my back and hear somebody say "Bend Over, Boy, Because You Have It Coming To You".
-- Linus Torvalds
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Feb 15th, 2001, 11:33 AM
#11
New Member
No
0.9999(Recurring) is NOT equal to 1.
Reasons:
1) You could substitute x = 0.6666(recurring) into the proof and get the same thing (or any other recurring number between 0 and 1).
2) The proof is not reversable. i.e. you cannot go from x = 1 to x = 0.9999(recurring).
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Feb 15th, 2001, 11:50 AM
#12
Addicted Member
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Feb 15th, 2001, 11:52 AM
#13
New Member
Only if
the proposed proof true.
It must be flawed.
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Feb 15th, 2001, 12:22 PM
#14
Addicted Member
I think I've got it!
0.9999(recur) / 3 = 0.3333(recur) = 1/3
-----------------------------------------
Seriously, I did think that the problem with 0.9999 x 10 was that at the point where the parrallel lines meet there would be a 9 missing, but can someone please explain what I have done now ?
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Feb 15th, 2001, 12:40 PM
#15
Hyperactive Member
Re: Well...
1) You could substitute x = 0.6666(recurring) into the proof and get the same thing (or any other recurring number between 0 and 1).
Substitute 0.66666(rec)
let x = 0.6666(recuring)
then 10x = 6.6666(recuring)
then 10x-x = 6.6666(recuring) - x
then 9x = 6
then x = 6/9
Which doesn't equal 1. In fact it equals 0.666(rec). Fancy that. Therefore your theory doesn't hold.
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Feb 15th, 2001, 12:45 PM
#16
Hyperactive Member
Originally posted by Starman
I think I've got it!
0.9999(recur) / 3 = 0.3333(recur) = 1/3
-----------------------------------------
Seriously, I did think that the problem with 0.9999 x 10 was that at the point where the parrallel lines meet there would be a 9 missing, but can someone please explain what I have done now ?
You've just given another proof that 0.999(rec) = 1
Its also another answer.
If 1/3 = 0.333(rec) then *3
1 = 0.999(rec)
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Feb 15th, 2001, 12:47 PM
#17
Frenzied Member
Marntzg proof okay.
Fried Egg: Substituting recurring .66666 in the Marntzg proof results in proving that recurring .666666 is equal to 2/3 (You end up with 9*X = 6). Nothing wrong with that.
I am not sure that reversability is required for a proof to be true. It is not obvious to me that you cannot do the reverse proof.
At any rate, proofs involving limits do not really prove statements like recurring .999999 = 1. They prove that substituting 1 for the recurring decimal does not lead to paradoxical or erroneous results.
To be very picky, mathematicians use statements like recurring .999999 approaches 1 as the number of nines increases without bound, which is not quite equivalent to saying that recurring .9999 equals 1.
Live long & prosper.
The Dinosaur from prehistoric era prior to computers.
Eschew obfuscation!
If a billion people believe a foolish idea, it is still a foolish idea!
VB.net 2010 Express
64Bit & 32Bit Windows 7 & Windows XP. I run 4 operating systems on a single PC.
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Feb 15th, 2001, 01:05 PM
#18
New Member
OK
I stand corrected on my first point but I still think that the irrevsersability of the proof is an example of its falacy.
You cannot get from
9x = 9
to
10x-x = 9.9999(recuring) - x
when you've already established that x = 1.
Surely that's a flaw?
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Feb 15th, 2001, 03:35 PM
#19
Fried Egg,
The first time I saw that recurring proof, I was pissed off too.
They don't say, "in the limit, it's equal; they say it's equal". Hard to swallow when it looks like there is a missing 9 when you multiply by 10.
Or that something funny is going on with converging/diverging series.
Bottom line: Whether this is true or false, it doesn't profit me. But it sure can waste time. Maybe there is profit in that.
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Feb 15th, 2001, 10:47 PM
#20
Frenzied Member
Odds & ends.
VirtuallyVB: Do now worry about a missing nine. It is not missing. Dealing with infinite sets, infinitely long numbers, et cetera has a lot of pit falls.
For example: Consider the set of all positive integers and the set of all positive even integers. Each set has the same number of members!!! The definition of an infinite set is a set that can be put into a one to one correspondence with one of its subsets. If throwing away all the odd integers does not decrease the number of members, why worry about one lousy nine?
BTW: Mathematicians hedge a bit when they talk about limits. They may claim that using a limiting value (in certain situations) is valid and leads to no contracitions, without actually saying that the function is ever equal to its limit. Saying that a function is equal to its limit is a kind of mathematical slang used as shorthand for all the business of "approaches .... as ... grows without bound"
Fried Egg: I have never seen reversability as a requirement for the validity of a proof. It just does not seem necessary.
Surely I can prove that a given number is the root of a 100th order polynomial, but the polynomial cannot be reconstructed from that single root without knowing the other 99 roots.
e is the limit of (1 + 1 / N)^N as N grows without bound. Given 2.71828..., can you reconstruct the expression from which is it derived?
It seems to me that there must be provable statements which do not contain enough information to reverse the proof.
Live long & prosper.
The Dinosaur from prehistoric era prior to computers.
Eschew obfuscation!
If a billion people believe a foolish idea, it is still a foolish idea!
VB.net 2010 Express
64Bit & 32Bit Windows 7 & Windows XP. I run 4 operating systems on a single PC.
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Feb 16th, 2001, 03:45 AM
#21
Fanatic Member
The real issue
The real issue is this:
Does 1 - 0.9999... = 0
Or to put it another way,
Is there anything left when you take away 0.9999... from 1.
You might say that 0.9999... is infintely close to 1 and therefore is 1, or you might say there is an infintiely small quantity left, that nethertheless, is greater than zero.
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Feb 16th, 2001, 10:33 AM
#22
Frenzied Member
I'd say 1 - 0.999999... = 0.00000000...
which is 0
Harry.
"From one thing, know ten thousand things."
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Feb 16th, 2001, 11:15 AM
#23
Fanatic Member
But,
Is there such a number as 0.000...01 ?
If there is, then 0.999... is not equal to 1.
If there isn't, then (perhaps) it is.
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Feb 16th, 2001, 11:26 AM
#24
Addicted Member
Maybe it's a problem with the decimal system. I can appreciate that 1/3 can never be properly represented in decimal, nor can 2/3 (6/9).
Is there a fraction which would evaluate to 0.9999... ?
I tried 3/2 x 2/3 and that's how I came upon my earlier revelation.
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Feb 16th, 2001, 12:12 PM
#25
Hyperactive Member
bottom line
2=2
1=1
and move on with your life :P
Bababooey
Tatatoothy
Mamamonkey
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Feb 16th, 2001, 12:53 PM
#26
Hyperactive Member
Re: Marntzg proof okay.
Originally posted by Guv
Fried Egg:
To be very picky, mathematicians use statements like recurring .999999 approaches 1 as the number of nines increases without bound, which is not quite equivalent to saying that recurring .9999 equals 1.
Actually the answer isn't a limit. .999... actually does equal 1. I have been doing some research and I found the exact same proof in my calculas book (Calculas: 1 and several variables eighth edition).
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Feb 16th, 2001, 01:56 PM
#27
Frenzied Member
The proof is a bit strange.
Marnitzg: I am surprised that the proof would appear in a calculus text. It is not a calculus-like proof. While it looks valid to me, I am not sure that it would be considered valid by a serious mathematician on one of his picky days.
I remember an entirely different type of proof from the calculus courses that I took many years ago. Recurring .99999 is actually a geometric series.
Code:
9/10 + 9/100 + 9/1000 . . .
Sum = A * (1 - R^N) / (1 - R), where A is first term, R is ratio, & N is number of terms.
Recurring .9999 is a special case: Sum = (1 - R^N), since A = (1 - R)
As N grows without bound, R^N approaches zero, and the sum approaches one. The memory of this proof is the reason I viewed one as the limit of the recurring nines.
The above is a valid proof. I suspect that your Calculus text was not as rigorous as it should have been.
Live long & prosper.
The Dinosaur from prehistoric era prior to computers.
Eschew obfuscation!
If a billion people believe a foolish idea, it is still a foolish idea!
VB.net 2010 Express
64Bit & 32Bit Windows 7 & Windows XP. I run 4 operating systems on a single PC.
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Feb 17th, 2001, 03:23 AM
#28
Hyperactive Member
Well, I found the proof in the second chapter - limits and continuity! Before that proof they do a few examples on limits so maybe they want to show that .999 is not a limit?
Last edited by marnitzg; Feb 17th, 2001 at 03:30 AM.
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Feb 17th, 2001, 06:53 AM
#29
New Member
Originally posted by Starman
You could try this:
>let: a=b
>multiply by a: a^2=ab
>add(a^2-2ab):a^2 + (a^2-2ab) = ab+ (a^2-2ab)
>simplify: 2(a^2 - ab) = a^2 - ab
a = b
Therefore, a^2 = a * a = a * b = ab
Hence, a^2 - ab = 0
and 2 * 0 = 1 * 0 = 0
>divide by (a^2 -ab): 2(a^2 - ab))/(a^2 -ab) = (a^2 - ab)/(a^2 -ab)
Division by zero is undefined. Above line is nonsense as (a^2 - ab) = 0.
> Therefore: 2 = 1
No it is not.
Regards,
Nick
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Feb 19th, 2001, 04:29 AM
#30
Addicted Member
Thanks Nick,
Actually I have already admitted to this in a post just before marnitzg offered 1 = 0.99999.
Can you shed any light on my present confusion of:
0.9999(recur) / 3 = 0.3333(recur) = 1/3
I hadn't bothered to type the last part of this before as I thought it was an obvious step but 3 x 1/3 = 1
so 0.9999(recur) = 1 (another way)
I do not believe that the two are equal, but feel there is a fault in my 'maths' .
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Feb 19th, 2001, 09:05 AM
#31
New Member
Starman,
This is a notation thing, it boils down to the fact that one third cannot be expressed exactly as a decimal.
Whichever number system you use, you are always going to have to express approximated fractions - for example, I don't think that 0.1 can be expressed exactly in binary (I'm not sure, but there are some decimals that can't be, which induce floating point errors in computer processors).
0.9999 does not equal 1,
0.9999 recurring forever does = 1.
Think of it this way - 1/3 cannot be expressed exactly so can be approximated to 0.333 - the more 3's you add, the closer you get to 1/3. You only ever express 1/3 exactly if you go on forever. The same applies to 0.9999 - if you go on forever, you are expressing 3/3 = 1. Question is one of how you represent the number (in my opinion). I'm pretty sure that there is a number theory proof where you can apply limits to show this.
Regards, Nick
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Feb 19th, 2001, 09:12 AM
#32
Fanatic Member
This is a nice (infinite) series:
1/1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 .... = 2
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Feb 19th, 2001, 09:30 AM
#33
Hyperactive Member
i have a question......
is it necessarily correct to use an equal sign when
writing a series?
and i have to disagree with the point that 0.99999
recurring forever equals one. 0.9999 recurring forever
equals 0.9999 recurring forever and 1 equals 1.
0.9999 recurring forever "approaches one and for
simplicity can be represented as 1". In a math problem,
sometimes you will have a number subtracted by
another number and they will be so close to one that
you can just disregard it when multiplying or dividing
by it. By saying that the difference between those two
numbers is 'equivalent' to one, it will probably destroy
any chances of argument :P
ps, if i could draw the wavy equal signs i could rewrite
0.99999 recurring forever (place wavy equal sign here) 1
Bababooey
Tatatoothy
Mamamonkey
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Feb 19th, 2001, 09:37 AM
#34
New Member
I still say that 0.9999 recurring forever is equal to one. I am not progressing it in terms of decimal places as it repeats an infinite number of times, so the complete number is not approaching anything as it is not changing.
The changing number of places is a conceptual representation to help people understand the transition from a finite digit-length number to an infinite digit-length one. The two are different as I tried to explain earlier.
Regards,
Nick
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Feb 19th, 2001, 09:43 AM
#35
Addicted Member
Thanks Nick,
That sounds a reasonable explanation.
I'm afraid that I still don't believe that 0.9999 recurring forever will quite be 1 (a bit hare and tortoise I suppose), but you have confirmed my fear of the decimal system. I will continue as long as I can in feet and inches and pray for a return to miles to the gallon, lbs and ounces and 20 shillings to the pound. If awkward for calculations these measurements at least teach that there is more than one way to measure a quantity, and show that there is a reason to learn your times tables.
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Feb 19th, 2001, 09:46 AM
#36
Fanatic Member
Tell me this, someone:
If 1 = 0.9999...
What is the first finintely describable real number below 1 (or 0.9999...)?
Or is it, as I suspect, that the next finitely describable number below 1 is not nameable?
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Feb 19th, 2001, 02:25 PM
#37
New Member
Let me just say,
Guv,
Some complex operations cannot easily be reversed but surely it is not unreasonable to expect a simple operation like subtraction to be reversable. If you subtract number x from number y to get a result z, you would reasonably expect to be able to work backwards to add y to z to get x.
Therefore, starting with x = 1, you cannot get 9 + x to equal 9.9999(rec) without the prior assumption that 1 = 0.9999(rec).
Simonm,
You cannot name the smallest real number below 1 for the same reasons you cannot name the largest number.
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Feb 19th, 2001, 03:29 PM
#38
Hyperactive Member
nick:
The only reason I tend to
assume it is not equal to one is that sometimes in my
field, i deal with extremely small or extremely large
numbers that approach a value but can be not
necessarily 'rounded' in order to simplify an operation.
Consider a bridge that flexes an almost infinitestimal
amount to the human eye, can we say it bends nothing
and 10 years from now have a collapsed bridge?
Your point is very good and it's a good view to not
look at 0.99999(recur) as a changing number as it
simply infinite i'm simply firm in my belief that it is
'equivalent to' 1 and not 'equal to' 1. :P
Bababooey
Tatatoothy
Mamamonkey
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Feb 19th, 2001, 07:19 PM
#39
New Member
noble,
Subtle difference is that with your bridges you are talking about finite changes. 'Almost infinitesimal' still implies quantity. This goes completely against the concept of infinity and infinitely small. If an electron has a collision with your bridge and transfers some of its momentum to it, there is still a finite amount of momentum acting on the bridge (which is greater than infinitely small). Whether it is insignificantly small is another matter.
If you express 0.9999 as a geometric progression (gp) from x=1 to infinity (which you can do as there are an infinite number of recurring places) then taking limits gives you 1.
I am saying that 0.999 recurring infinitely is the same as taking limits on the gp, as all that you are doing by expressing it as a gp is to fragment the number, but you need to repeat it to an infinite number of terms to get the whole number. When you take limits, you sum every component of the number. I don't think that we are going to find common ground here (except that we both agree that they are equivalent!)
Regards,
Nick
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Feb 19th, 2001, 07:27 PM
#40
New Member
Starman,
Every base system has infinite fractions, they would just be attached to different fractions, that's all. For example, in base 12 (using 0123456789AB) 0.1 = 0.12497249... (goes on and on I think)
I personally prefer Denary, although I can see a lot of advantages to going over to Hex....
For scientific measurements, everything works quite nicely with metirc measurements. Fact of the matter is that people understand best pretty much what they learn first. I hated radians until I started doing more advanced physics/mathematics and they make stuff much easier there as you always get a few pies [or should that be pi's ) ] that cancel out. I still translate mph to km/h and have little comprehension of kW in terms of car engine power (has to be bhp), although just for every other form of power it has to be in kW!
Best to stick to whichever you find easiest, it can always be converted if required.
Regards,
Nick
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