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Mar 11th, 2004, 11:51 AM
#1
Thread Starter
Lively Member
Proving theroms? Ugh!
I've been stumped on this stupid question for 3 days, guys. I have to locate the flaw in this proof. I have no clue what's wrong with it. According to the rules of inductive reasoning, it works
'Theorem': For every positive integer n, if x and y are positive integers with max(x,y)=n then x=y.
Basis Step: Suppose that n=1. If max(x,y) = 1 and x and y are positive integers, we have x=1 and y=1.
Inductive step: Let k be a positive integer. Assume that whenever max(x,y)=k and x and y are positive integers then x=y. Now let max(x,y)=k+1 where x and y are positive integers. Then max(x-1,y-1) = k, so by the inductive hypothesis, x-1=y-1. It follows that x=y, completing the inductive step.
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Mar 11th, 2004, 02:12 PM
#2
Lively Member
How's about a counterexample:
max(3,17) = 17
but 3 does not equal 17...
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Mar 11th, 2004, 04:01 PM
#3
"Suppose that n=1. If max(x,y) = 1 and x and y are positive integers, we have x=1 and y=1. "
That is only true for n=1, because only "1" is less or equal to n. So x must equal y. Buf if there are more possible integers, that's not true.
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Wait, I'm too old to hurry!
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Mar 12th, 2004, 09:40 PM
#4
Addicted Member
The induction fails when you go from k=1 to k=2. If you have max(2, 1)=2 for your equation max(x, y)=k+1, then you cannot take max(x-1, y-1) as part of the domain of the "theorem" since y-1=0, which is not a positive integer. Therefore, the only case you are allowed to consider in your "proof" for max(x, y)=k+1 when k=1 is max(2, 2)=2, in which case x=y is certainly true. This proof leaves out the simplest counter-example, and thus, by the nature of induction, all of the other counter-examples.
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Mar 13th, 2004, 12:50 AM
#5
Fanatic Member
actually....
It's all about forgetting the negatives / zero...
u see, if max(x,y) = 1, then x doesn't have to = y, it could be x = 0, y = 1, or x = 1, y = -1244129!
This plays a big part, because the inductive step says that if max(x,y) = k+1, then max(x-1, y-1) = k
looking at k = 2: max(2, 1) = 2 => max(1, 0) = 1!!!
U see, we now have max(x,y) = 1 without x = y
I have no idea where this max(x,y) = 1 -> x = y = 1 came from!
sql_lall 
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Mar 13th, 2004, 10:08 PM
#6
Addicted Member
sql_lall,
It says x and y are positive integers.
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Mar 14th, 2004, 04:04 AM
#7
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Mar 19th, 2004, 04:32 PM
#8
Member
I think we cannot use Induction here as your hypothesis is already wrong. This point is already proved by many people.
Moreover a counter example is enough to disprove any theorem as that is being already given.
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Mar 22nd, 2004, 03:28 PM
#9
Addicted Member
well, FOR SURE, the assumption that
max(x,y)=k ==>x=y
is WRONG.
but i can see something right that Zej saying,
but he made a big error then.
if
max(x,y)=k then
x=k OR y=k
note thats its OR not AND
thats the mistake you fell for.
example
max(10,-20)=10
so if we have:
max(x,y)=10
we know that AS LEAST ONE of x, and y is 10,
BUT not nessarilly both.
hope this helps you Zej
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