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Feb 21st, 2004, 07:37 PM
#1
Thread Starter
Addicted Member
Proof of Prime ? HELP!
Here's a challange for everyone.
This is an algebra question:
Let Pn be the nth positive prime in the usual ordering. Use induction to prove that Pn <= 2^2^(n-1).
(Hint: Use proof of infinetly many primes)
Please help anyway you can.
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Feb 22nd, 2004, 04:45 PM
#2
Can you give us the proof of infinitely many primes?
The time you enjoy wasting is not wasted time.
Bertrand Russell
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Feb 22nd, 2004, 04:48 PM
#3
Thread Starter
Addicted Member
Proof of infinitely many primes
Sure, here it is:
Suppose that there exist only finitely many primes p1 < p2 < ... < pr. Let N = (p1)(p2)...(pr) > 2. The integer N-1, being a product of primes, has a prime divisor pi in common with N; so, pi divides N - (N-1) =1, which is absurd!
(I copied this from http://www.utm.edu/research/primes/n...e/kummers.html).
This is the same proof that my prof. used in class.
Hopefully this helps answer the question.
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Feb 23rd, 2004, 04:02 AM
#4
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Feb 23rd, 2004, 04:20 AM
#5
Thread Starter
Addicted Member
still confused....
sorry, still confused.
How does the Sieve-of-Eratosthenes help with this? From what I know, it is used to find all primes <= to n (where n is any number).
When you say multiply together, could you be more specific?
Thanks for all your help.
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Feb 23rd, 2004, 05:41 PM
#6
Lively Member
Well here goes, I'm ad-libbing this:
First, see if it's true for n = 1:
LHS = 2
RHS = 2 <= LHS so yeah it holds for n = 1.
Now suppose it's true for n = k (where k is a positive integer), i.e. that Pk <= 2^2^(k-1).
Square both sides (no problems there because both sides are always positive):
Pk2 <= 2^2^k
At which point I don't know what to do. Usually you play with that until you end up with:
Pk+1 <= 2^2^k
Upon which you shout "hazaar" three times and leave the room, but I can't immediately see how to continue and it's getting late.
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Feb 28th, 2004, 07:29 PM
#7
Fanatic Member
apply bertrand's postulate
Last edited by bugzpodder; Feb 28th, 2004 at 08:13 PM.
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