Originally posted by krtxmrtz
You verify it's true for k=1, then you try to prove that if it holds for k=n-1 then it will also hold for k=n.
Since n can be any number and it's true for k=1, then it must be true for k=2, and therefore for k=3, and then for k=4, and so on.


Thanks... I understood the solution. What I have quoted here, this is the actual 'induction hypothesis'? SO I can safely apply it to any question I see with the words "induction hypothesis" in there?