|
-
Jan 13th, 2003, 03:30 PM
#1
Thread Starter
Fanatic Member
i is undefined and all triangles are equilateral
this one is quiet subtle:
(i-i^(-1))^(-1)
=
(i+i^(-1))[(i-i^(-1))(i+i^(-1))]^(-1)
=(i+i^(-1))[i^2-1/i^2]^(-1)
=(i+i^(-1))[-1+1]^(-1)
=(i+i^(-1))(0)^(-1)
=undefined! (since 0^(-1) or in other words, 1/0 is undefined!)
(i-i^(-1))^(-1)
=i(i(i-i^(-1)))^(-1)
=i(i^2-1)^(-1)
=i(-2)^(-1)
=-i/2
so -i/2=undfined
so either -1/2 is undfined or i is undefined
---------------------------------
given an arbitary triangle ABC, draw angle bisector at A and perpendicular bisector and BC.
if the two lines are congruent, then you know that AB=AC.
case 2: let them meet at D. draw E,F,G such that DE, DF, DG perpendicular to BC, AC, AB respectively.
since BAD=CAD (angle bisector) and DGA=DFA=90, and AD=AD (common side) then we have triangle ADG is congruent to ADF. so AG=AF, GD=GF
also, we have BE=EC (bisector), and DEB=DEC=90 and ED=ED we have triangle BDE is congruent to triangle EDC
so BD=DC.
triangle BDG is also congruent to triangle CDF because GD=DF and BD=DC as shown above and BGD=CFD=90. so BG=FC
since AG=AF and GB=FC then AB=BC
do that to other two sides to get all triangles are equilateral
Massey RuleZ! ^-^__  Cheers!  __^-^ Massey RuleZ!
Did you know that...
The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!
-
Jan 13th, 2003, 03:50 PM
#2
Addicted Member
The only thing I can come up with for that without reading it, is that you've either divided by zero somewhere or factorized something using zero as a factor to trick us
Not at all related to sheep...
-
Jan 13th, 2003, 03:57 PM
#3
Re: i is undefined and all triangles are equilateral
Originally posted by bugzpodder
[B]this one is quiet subtle:
(i-i^(-1))^(-1)
=
(i+i^(-1))[(i-i^(-1))(i+i^(-1))]^(-1)
=(i+i^(-1))[i^2-1/i^2]^(-1)
=(i+i^(-1))[-1+1]^(-1)
How is:
(i+i^(-1))[i^2-1/i^2]^(-1)
equal to
(i+i^(-1))[-1+1]^(-1)
???
-
Jan 13th, 2003, 05:54 PM
#4
Thread Starter
Fanatic Member
The only thing I can come up with for that without reading it, is that you've either divided by zero somewhere or factorized something using zero as a factor to trick us
then you should read it first!
How is:
(i+i^(-1))[i^2-1/i^2]^(-1)
equal to
(i+i^(-1))[-1+1]^(-1)
??? how is it not? substitute i^2=-1, you get -1-(1/(-1))
which is -1+1=0!!
Massey RuleZ! ^-^__  Cheers!  __^-^ Massey RuleZ!
Did you know that...
The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!
-
Jan 13th, 2003, 06:59 PM
#5
Originally posted by bugzpodder
??? how is it not? substitute i^2=-1, you get -1-(1/(-1))
which is -1+1=0!!
Oops!
When you said i is undefined, I was thinking it was just another variable, not i2 = -1.
BTW, does the statement "i is undefined" implicitly mean "i2 = -1", or can you have several undefined variables, where none of them equal each other, and none are necessarily = -1 when squared?
-
Jan 13th, 2003, 07:08 PM
#6
Thread Starter
Fanatic Member
no forget about "i is undfined" just take at as simplifying the equation:
(i-i^(-1))^(-1)
if you do it two different ways (As shown above) you'll get undefined as one answer, and -i/2 as another.
Massey RuleZ! ^-^__  Cheers!  __^-^ Massey RuleZ!
Did you know that...
The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!
-
Jan 16th, 2003, 06:17 PM
#7
-
Jan 16th, 2003, 09:45 PM
#8
Thread Starter
Fanatic Member
good observation, except you didn't proof what you "realize". and did you see something wrong the the "i" question
Massey RuleZ! ^-^__  Cheers!  __^-^ Massey RuleZ!
Did you know that...
The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!
-
Jan 17th, 2003, 03:04 AM
#9
In the term [(i-i^(-1))(i+i^(-1))]^(-1) which, for the sake of clarity, I'm going to write as
1 / [ (i - 1/i) * (i + 1/i) ]
you have a division by 0. Indeed:
1/i = i/i2 = i/-1 = -i
Therefore, i + 1/i = 0
-
Jan 17th, 2003, 07:52 AM
#10
Thread Starter
Fanatic Member
told ya it was subtle! Multiply top and bottom by 0 is fun
Massey RuleZ! ^-^__  Cheers!  __^-^ Massey RuleZ!
Did you know that...
The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!
-
Jan 17th, 2003, 05:23 PM
#11
Addicted Member
Bugz,
You said if the two lines are congruent then AB=AC, but then you proceeded to prove that AB=AC; therefore, there is no distinct point of intersection, because the lines are one and the same.
-
Jan 17th, 2003, 05:28 PM
#12
Fanatic Member
Re: i is undefined and all triangles are equilateral
I would try to figure it out if i didn't have to read so much one-line-math-notation
puke!
Posting Permissions
- You may not post new threads
- You may not post replies
- You may not post attachments
- You may not edit your posts
-
Forum Rules
|
Click Here to Expand Forum to Full Width
|