|
-
Dec 6th, 2002, 11:47 PM
#1
Thread Starter
Fanatic Member
combinatorics question
prove that (n_C_0)^2+(n_C_1)^2+...+(n_C_n)^2=2n_C_n
(one more thing in case of Kalk, no induction )
Massey RuleZ! ^-^__  Cheers!  __^-^ Massey RuleZ!
Did you know that...
The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!
-
Dec 7th, 2002, 10:24 PM
#2
Addicted Member
Lol...why no induction, bugz?
-
Dec 8th, 2002, 09:40 AM
#3
Thread Starter
Fanatic Member
because it can be done without induction!
(x+1)^(2n)=(x+1)^n * (x+1)*n
the LHS has a term of 2n_C_n *x^n
the RHS has x^n with coefficients (n_C_0)(n_C_n)+(n_C_1)(n_C_n-1)+...+(n_C_n)(n_C_1)
so (n_C_0)=(n_C_n) and (n_C_1)=(n_C_n-1) and ...
so therefore
2n_C_n=Sum (r=0..n) n_C_r
Massey RuleZ! ^-^__  Cheers!  __^-^ Massey RuleZ!
Did you know that...
The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!
-
Dec 13th, 2002, 05:22 PM
#4
Addicted Member
Ok bugz, I'm getting sick of your elegant solutions! You know way too much for the rest of us!
-
Dec 20th, 2002, 06:11 AM
#5
Posting Permissions
- You may not post new threads
- You may not post replies
- You may not post attachments
- You may not edit your posts
-
Forum Rules
|
Click Here to Expand Forum to Full Width
|