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Thread: easy problem

  1. #1

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    So Unbanned DiGiTaIErRoR's Avatar
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    easy problem

    anyone know what 1/9 i.e .111... and .999... =?

  2. #2
    Frenzied Member
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    what do you mean

  3. #3

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    and means add, +

  4. #4

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    So Unbanned DiGiTaIErRoR's Avatar
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    Let me just make my point.

    a=.999... repeating forever
    b=1
    c=.111... repeating forever

    it's known that if a+c=b+c then a=b, otherwise a <> b

    a+c=undefined, because the result, from the backside, would be 1.111...1110 the 'end'

    since you can not define such a solution, b+c, which = 1.111... <> undefined, so .999... <> 1

    Tada.

    Thank you, thank you very much.

  5. #5
    Fanatic Member sql_lall's Avatar
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    Talking Why??

    Think of the Matrix:
    "There is no end" (well actually, there is no spoon, but close enough)

    You said that (a + c) has an 'end', however, you also are adding two numbers with an infinite number of decimal, so why their sum would have an 'end' like that i don't know. You should realise that 0.111111... + 0.99999... = 1.1111111....
    similar to how
    0.11111... + 1 = 1.111111....

    It is just that there is no 'backside' to (a+c), 'cos just saying there is implys that there is also a 'backside' to a and c, which you ahve just shown there isn't.

    Tada
    Thank you, thank you very much.
    sql_lall

  6. #6
    Fanatic Member bugzpodder's Avatar
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    let me prove you wrong by contradiction DigitalError:

    because the result, from the backside, would be 1.111...1110 the 'end'
    0.111...+0.999...=1.111...1110 (1)

    and RHS has an end. so lets say the RHS has n 1s w/ a single 0 in the end.

    now add up

    0.111...111+0.999...999 (2)

    where there is n 1s and n 9s. you'll get:

    1.111...1110, which has n 1s

    0.111...=0.111...111+0.000...000111...
    0.999...=0.999...999+0.000...000999...

    we have a+b=k (1)
    and (a+c)+(b+d)=k (2)
    k+c+d=k
    c+d=0

    but c=0.000...000111...
    d=0.000...000999...

    therefore c+d <> 0

    therefore proven by contradiction, 0.111...+0.999...<>1.111...1110, where there is an finite number of 1s in the RHS
    Massey RuleZ! ^-^__Cheers!__^-^ Massey RuleZ!


    Did you know that...
    The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!

  7. #7

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    I never said there was a finite number of 1's, there is not.

    The 0 would merely be beyond infinity.

    But infinity = infinity, and there would be a 0 there, because infinite significant digits.

    Because there are infite digits, you have proven nothing.

  8. #8
    Fanatic Member bugzpodder's Avatar
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    by saying that you are implying that infinite is actually finite. there is no "beyond infinity" and there is no "end" to infinity. this is an easy concept to grasp even for high school students like you.
    Massey RuleZ! ^-^__Cheers!__^-^ Massey RuleZ!


    Did you know that...
    The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!

  9. #9

    Thread Starter
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    But if there's nothing beyond infinity, then not even infinity goes beyond itself.

    So you're saying infinite is finite.

  10. #10
    Fanatic Member bugzpodder's Avatar
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    actually I was only quoting you DigitalError

    infinity cannot be measured because there is no end to it
    Massey RuleZ! ^-^__Cheers!__^-^ Massey RuleZ!


    Did you know that...
    The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!

  11. #11

    Thread Starter
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    Infinity can be measured.

    It's measure is infinite.

    Duh.

  12. #12
    Fanatic Member sql_lall's Avatar
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    Talking Hmm...

    Gee... interesting.
    Firstly:
    1) Infinity is an idea, not a value. Becuase of this, you cannot 'measure' infinity. And nothing has a measure of infinity, because to measure something you need a start and an end (as bugz said). Something that is infinite could be described as something unmeasureable.
    2) Assume there is a 0 at 'the end', past 'infinity'. Then how did it get there?? The two things you are adding together only have an infinite number of digits, so how could there sum have a digit 'beyond infinity' ??? (BTW, this doesn't truly make sense, but i tried to explain it using your terminology)

    Finally, some cool stuff to finish with:
    3) You said "infinity = infinity"
    However, also:
    infinity + 1 = infinity
    infinity * 2 = infinity
    infinity2 = infinity
    (that is, where this infinity = aleph-0)

    P.S. Bugz, you said:
    "this is an easy concept to grasp even for high school students like you"
    you also are a high-school student though aren't you. In fact, everyone on this post might be. (with the possible exception of SteveCRM)
    sql_lall

  13. #13
    Fanatic Member bugzpodder's Avatar
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    P.S. Bugz, you said:
    "this is an easy concept to grasp even for high school students like you"
    you also are a high-school student though aren't you. In fact, everyone on this post might be. (with the possible exception of SteveCRM)
    I never said i wasn't.

    actually most ppl here (esp those long timers are not high school students) but as far as i am concerned your age makes no difference. Only what you know does.
    Massey RuleZ! ^-^__Cheers!__^-^ Massey RuleZ!


    Did you know that...
    The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!

  14. #14
    Hyperactive Member marnitzg's Avatar
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    Originally posted by DiGiTaIErRoR
    Let me just make my point.

    a=.999... repeating forever
    b=1
    c=.111... repeating forever

    it's known that if a+c=b+c then a=b, otherwise a <> b

    a+c=undefined, because the result, from the backside, would be 1.111...1110 the 'end'

    since you can not define such a solution, b+c, which = 1.111... <> undefined, so .999... <> 1

    Tada.

    Thank you, thank you very much.
    [edit, re-read]
    a+c = b+c
    or a+(1/9) = 1 + (1/9)
    a + (1/9) = (10/9)
    a = 1
    *** did you prove?

    Just because you cannot imagine something, doesn't mean it cannot be done.

    Maths was invented by humans. Humans have flaws. Therefore maths has flaws.
    Last edited by marnitzg; Oct 7th, 2002 at 04:30 PM.

  15. #15
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    LOL

    Write the answer as a fraction, which is 10/9

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