|
-
Oct 5th, 2002, 06:33 PM
#1
Thread Starter
So Unbanned
easy problem
anyone know what 1/9 i.e .111... and .999... =?
-
Oct 5th, 2002, 07:00 PM
#2
Frenzied Member
what do you mean
-
Oct 5th, 2002, 07:18 PM
#3
Thread Starter
So Unbanned
-
Oct 5th, 2002, 07:52 PM
#4
Thread Starter
So Unbanned
Let me just make my point.
a=.999... repeating forever
b=1
c=.111... repeating forever
it's known that if a+c=b+c then a=b, otherwise a <> b
a+c=undefined, because the result, from the backside, would be 1.111...1110 the 'end'
since you can not define such a solution, b+c, which = 1.111... <> undefined, so .999... <> 1
Tada.
Thank you, thank you very much.
-
Oct 6th, 2002, 05:09 AM
#5
Fanatic Member
-
Oct 6th, 2002, 08:18 AM
#6
Fanatic Member
let me prove you wrong by contradiction DigitalError:
because the result, from the backside, would be 1.111...1110 the 'end'
0.111...+0.999...=1.111...1110 (1)
and RHS has an end. so lets say the RHS has n 1s w/ a single 0 in the end.
now add up
0.111...111+0.999...999 (2)
where there is n 1s and n 9s. you'll get:
1.111...1110, which has n 1s
0.111...=0.111...111+0.000...000111...
0.999...=0.999...999+0.000...000999...
we have a+b=k (1)
and (a+c)+(b+d)=k (2)
k+c+d=k
c+d=0
but c=0.000...000111...
d=0.000...000999...
therefore c+d <> 0
therefore proven by contradiction, 0.111...+0.999...<>1.111...1110, where there is an finite number of 1s in the RHS
Massey RuleZ! ^-^__  Cheers!  __^-^ Massey RuleZ!
Did you know that...
The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!
-
Oct 6th, 2002, 03:34 PM
#7
Thread Starter
So Unbanned
I never said there was a finite number of 1's, there is not.
The 0 would merely be beyond infinity.
But infinity = infinity, and there would be a 0 there, because infinite significant digits.
Because there are infite digits, you have proven nothing.
-
Oct 6th, 2002, 04:53 PM
#8
Fanatic Member
by saying that you are implying that infinite is actually finite. there is no "beyond infinity" and there is no "end" to infinity. this is an easy concept to grasp even for high school students like you.
Massey RuleZ! ^-^__  Cheers!  __^-^ Massey RuleZ!
Did you know that...
The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!
-
Oct 6th, 2002, 05:16 PM
#9
Thread Starter
So Unbanned
But if there's nothing beyond infinity, then not even infinity goes beyond itself.
So you're saying infinite is finite.
-
Oct 6th, 2002, 05:52 PM
#10
Fanatic Member
actually I was only quoting you DigitalError
infinity cannot be measured because there is no end to it
Massey RuleZ! ^-^__  Cheers!  __^-^ Massey RuleZ!
Did you know that...
The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!
-
Oct 6th, 2002, 09:40 PM
#11
Thread Starter
So Unbanned
Infinity can be measured.
It's measure is infinite.
Duh.
-
Oct 7th, 2002, 04:56 AM
#12
Fanatic Member
Hmm...
Gee... interesting.
Firstly:
1) Infinity is an idea, not a value. Becuase of this, you cannot 'measure' infinity. And nothing has a measure of infinity, because to measure something you need a start and an end (as bugz said). Something that is infinite could be described as something unmeasureable.
2) Assume there is a 0 at 'the end', past 'infinity'. Then how did it get there?? The two things you are adding together only have an infinite number of digits, so how could there sum have a digit 'beyond infinity' ??? (BTW, this doesn't truly make sense, but i tried to explain it using your terminology)
Finally, some cool stuff to finish with:
3) You said "infinity = infinity"
However, also:
infinity + 1 = infinity
infinity * 2 = infinity
infinity2 = infinity
(that is, where this infinity = aleph-0)
P.S. Bugz, you said:
"this is an easy concept to grasp even for high school students like you"
you also are a high-school student though aren't you. In fact, everyone on this post might be. (with the possible exception of SteveCRM)
sql_lall 
-
Oct 7th, 2002, 03:13 PM
#13
Fanatic Member
P.S. Bugz, you said:
"this is an easy concept to grasp even for high school students like you"
you also are a high-school student though aren't you. In fact, everyone on this post might be. (with the possible exception of SteveCRM)
I never said i wasn't.
actually most ppl here (esp those long timers are not high school students) but as far as i am concerned your age makes no difference. Only what you know does.
Massey RuleZ! ^-^__  Cheers!  __^-^ Massey RuleZ!
Did you know that...
The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!
-
Oct 7th, 2002, 04:26 PM
#14
Hyperactive Member
Originally posted by DiGiTaIErRoR
Let me just make my point.
a=.999... repeating forever
b=1
c=.111... repeating forever
it's known that if a+c=b+c then a=b, otherwise a <> b
a+c=undefined, because the result, from the backside, would be 1.111...1110 the 'end'
since you can not define such a solution, b+c, which = 1.111... <> undefined, so .999... <> 1
Tada.
Thank you, thank you very much.
[edit, re-read]
a+c = b+c
or a+(1/9) = 1 + (1/9)
a + (1/9) = (10/9)
a = 1
*** did you prove?
Just because you cannot imagine something, doesn't mean it cannot be done.
Maths was invented by humans. Humans have flaws. Therefore maths has flaws.
Last edited by marnitzg; Oct 7th, 2002 at 04:30 PM.
-
Oct 7th, 2002, 05:18 PM
#15
Addicted Member
LOL
Write the answer as a fraction, which is 10/9
Posting Permissions
- You may not post new threads
- You may not post replies
- You may not post attachments
- You may not edit your posts
-
Forum Rules
|
Click Here to Expand Forum to Full Width
|