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Jan 3rd, 2003, 04:10 AM
#1
Thread Starter
Fanatic Member
Philisophical question about logic...
There are sentances that can be constructed in language that appear contradictory but are not, technically speaking, contradictions.
Such as:
"There is a fire in the room. I do not believe there is a fire in the room".
It is not contradiction (from the perspective of formal logic) in that it doesn't take the form "B. And not B." but linguistically, it is.
Which raises the question, does formal logic fail to encapsulate lingustic logic?
Or perhaps the above example can somehow be reduced to the form "B. And not B."?
The first sentence is a statement of fact and the second sentance is a statement of one's own belief. A Solipsist would argue that we are not qualified to make statements of fact but only speak of our own perception. Therefore, is the first sentance not equivilent to "(I believe) there is a fire in the room"?
Is "I believe there is a fire in the room" semantically equivillent to "There is a fire in the room". They don't appear to be but then you wouldn't say there is a fire in the room unless you believed there is a fire in the room?
Everything I say is either loose interpretation of dubious facts or idle speculation rooted in irrational sentiment. 
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