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Sep 23rd, 2006, 08:47 AM
#1
Thread Starter
New Member
again can 1=(-1) ??? with cube
ok lets check this
1=1
1=cuberoot(1)
1=cuberoot(-1*-1*1)
1=cuberoot(-1)*cuberoot(-1)*cuberoot(1)
1=cuberoot(iota)*cuberoot(iota)*cuberoot(1)
cubing both sides
1=iota*iota*1
1=-1*1
1=-1
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Sep 23rd, 2006, 09:11 AM
#2
Re: again can 1=(-1) ??? with cube
 Originally Posted by monu2010
1=cuberoot(-1)*cuberoot(-1)*cuberoot(1)
1=cuberoot(iota)*cuberoot(iota)*cuberoot(1)
Reread your question, -1 not eqauls iota. It's [iota*iota = -1] or [iota = -11/2].
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Sep 23rd, 2006, 10:42 AM
#3
Addicted Member
Re: again can 1=(-1) ??? with cube
Math is too strong to be proven wrong by something this simple.
You could say:
(-1)^3=1^3
but it does not mean
-1=1
 Originally Posted by ZaNi
On a side note, I've figured something out: IE is like life... Its a disease we all start with, and it will be fatal someday unless something drastic changes  .
Note: If I was helpful, rate me! This is a subliminal message. GET FIREFOX!
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Sep 23rd, 2006, 10:53 AM
#4
Junior Member
Re: again can 1=(-1) ??? with cube
 Originally Posted by bobabot1
You could say:
(-1)^3=1^3
And you'd be wrong! (-1)3 = -1, not 1!
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Sep 23rd, 2006, 05:00 PM
#5
Member
Re: again can 1=(-1) ??? with cube
Yes, the problem is between your 4th and 5th lines. You seem to suggest
cuberoot(-1) == cuberoot(iota)
which is clearly not true.
cuberoot(-1) = iota*(-1)^(-1/6)
or
cuberoot(-1) = (iota)^(2/3)
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Sep 23rd, 2006, 07:14 PM
#6
Addicted Member
Re: again can 1=(-1) ??? with cube
Dross: You're right. I meant to say that if you did the same thing to both sides (in this case cube them) that they would not be the same, thus proving 1 != -1
 Originally Posted by ZaNi
On a side note, I've figured something out: IE is like life... Its a disease we all start with, and it will be fatal someday unless something drastic changes  .
Note: If I was helpful, rate me! This is a subliminal message. GET FIREFOX!
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Sep 24th, 2006, 01:03 PM
#7
Re: again can 1=(-1) ??? with cube
For goodness sakes. Can we not go down this road? Next up will be (-1)^4 = (1)^4 etc.
You cannot use the equality (-1)^2 = (1)^2 in any way, shape or form to argue that -1 = 1.
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Sep 24th, 2006, 01:06 PM
#8
Addicted Member
Re: again can 1=(-1) ??? with cube
 Originally Posted by bobabot1
Dross: You're right. I meant to say that if you did the same thing to both sides (in this case cube them) that they would not be the same, thus proving 1 != -1
I said not... I was trying to prove that what he was doing was incorrect
 Originally Posted by ZaNi
On a side note, I've figured something out: IE is like life... Its a disease we all start with, and it will be fatal someday unless something drastic changes  .
Note: If I was helpful, rate me! This is a subliminal message. GET FIREFOX!
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