Results 1 to 5 of 5

Thread: Modulus Question

  1. #1

    Thread Starter
    Hyperactive Member
    Join Date
    Dec 2001
    Location
    I'm in front of the computer.
    Posts
    270

    Question Modulus Question

    Sorry if I sound stupid asking this, but what is meant by the expression "1 (mod p)", where p is greater than one? I'm sure it must make more sense than I can figure out.

    If the context is important, I'm reading up on RSA, quote's here:
    Let p and q be two different large primes. A large number p can be tested for primeness by applying Fermat's theorem, which states that if p is prime, then
    a^p-1 == 1 (mod p)

    for every positive integer a not divisible by p. (A double equal sign (==) is used instead of the usual symbol for congruence, which is not supported by all Web browsers.) A number p which passes this test for several hundred randomly selected values of a in the range (1, p-1) is almost surely prime.
    Alphanos

  2. #2
    transcendental analytic kedaman's Avatar
    Join Date
    Mar 2000
    Location
    0x002F2EA8
    Posts
    7,221
    the rest after division with p, for instance 13=3 (mod 5)
    Use
    writing software in C++ is like driving rivets into steel beam with a toothpick.
    writing haskell makes your life easier:
    reverse (p (6*9)) where p x|x==0=""|True=chr (48+z): p y where (y,z)=divMod x 13
    To throw away OOP for low level languages is myopia, to keep OOP is hyperopia. To throw away OOP for a high level language is insight.

  3. #3
    Fanatic Member alkatran's Avatar
    Join Date
    Apr 2002
    Location
    Canada
    Posts
    860
    x mod y = z
    3 mod 2 = 1
    4 mod 2 = 0

    X= its the amout between X and the nearest multiple of Y
    Don't pay attention to this signature, it's contradictory.

  4. #4
    Super Moderator Shaggy Hiker's Avatar
    Join Date
    Aug 2002
    Location
    Idaho
    Posts
    40,106
    Isn't 1 mod P where P>1 always going to be 1?

  5. #5
    Fanatic Member bugzpodder's Avatar
    Join Date
    Jun 2002
    Location
    Ontario, Canada
    Posts
    787
    for integers a,p,q, a>=0, p>1
    q= a (mod p)

    means q can be represented as k*p+a, where k is some integer, 0<=a<p
    Massey RuleZ! ^-^__Cheers!__^-^ Massey RuleZ!


    Did you know that...
    The probability that a random rational number has an even denominator is 1/3 (Salamin and Gosper 1972)? This result is independently verified by me (2002)!

Posting Permissions

  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts
  •  



Click Here to Expand Forum to Full Width