Originally Posted by Shaggy Hiker
I've heard that stat. I've always heard JUST that stat. There are so many problems with that stat it is nearly meaningless. Just one of those cases where people grab onto a statistic that helps their expectations without the context necessary to understand it. Is it meaningful? We lack sufficient information to even evaluate it.
Taken at face value, I think most people would expect it to be surprising that a party generally considered to be so morally bereft that calling yourself "compassionate" is understood to make you different from your colleagues. If compassionate was a trait of conservatives, nobody would bother calling themselves a "compassionate conservative". So why would they give more as a percentage? Could it be that democrats now include a significant percentage of underclasses that lack disposable income for charitable giving? Is it because church tithing was counted as charitable giving, thereby making the predominantly Republican LDS members appear quite charitable, though they are actually charitable in the same sense as any homeowner who contributes to a mandatory association fee?
What was the context of the question asked? What was counted as charitable giving? What was the demographics of the sample? All of these questions will skew the results. Did any of them invalidate the conclusion? How can we tell?