The distribution of random sample means has the same mean as for the mean of individual values, but the standard deviation is smaller.
Is this true or false or are we unable to tell?
Can someone please explain the answer to me?
Thanks
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The distribution of random sample means has the same mean as for the mean of individual values, but the standard deviation is smaller.
Is this true or false or are we unable to tell?
Can someone please explain the answer to me?
Thanks
The standard deviation of the random sample means is given by the standard deviation of all the individual values (population) divided by the square root of the size of the population (number of individual values existent in the population). If you find an experimental proof of this fact in EXCEL useful, please let me know and I´ll provide an apllication here in the forum.
Rui